EGSS —  LONDON STANSTED

EGSS AD 2.1  AERODROME LOCATION INDICATOR AND NAME

EGSS —  LONDON STANSTED

EGSS AD 2.2  AERODROME GEOGRAPHICAL AND ADMINISTRATIVE DATA

1

ARP coordinates and site at AD
Lat: 515306N Long: 0001406E

Mid point of Runway 04/22.

2

Direction and distance from city

2.5 NM ENE of Bishops Stortford.

3

Elevation / Reference temperature / Mean Low Temperature

348 FT / 19 °C / -

4

Geoid undulation at AD ELEV PSN

150 FT

5

Magnetic Variation / Annual Change

0.61°E (2022) / 0.20°E

6

AD Administration

STANSTED AIRPORT LTD.

 

Address

Enterprise House, Stansted Airport, Stansted, Essex CM24 1QW.

 

Telephone

0808-169-7031 (STAL)

01279-669328 (NATS Ltd)

01279-669325 (ATIS)

7

Type of Traffic permitted (IFR/VFR)

IFR/VFR

8

Remarks

Telephone calls to NATS Ltd operational areas may be recorded.

EGSS AD 2.3  OPERATIONAL HOURS

1

AD Administration

H24

2

Customs and immigration

H24

Prior notice by 2100 (2000) required for movements between 2300-0700 (2200-0600).

3

Health and sanitation

Health Control Officers in attendance for High Risk Flights. H24 Answerphone. Animal Border Inspection Post available.

4

AIS Briefing Office

5

ATS Reporting Office (ARO)

6

MET Briefing Office

7

ATS

H24

See also AD 2.18.

8

Fuelling

H24 for aircraft stands on the southside of the airport. 0600-2100 (0500-2100) for aircraft stands on the northside of the airport. Out of hours prior booking with fuelling provider listed at EGSS AD 2.4, Section 7.

9

Handling

H24

10

Security

H24

11

De-icing

H24

12

Remarks

Refer to AD 2.20 item 1.

EGSS AD 2.4  HANDLING SERVICES AND FACILITIES

1

Cargo handling facilities

Full. Nearest railway siding: Stansted 2.2 NM.

2

Fuel and oil types

AVTUR JET A-1.

Various by arrangement with fuel companies.

3

Fuelling facilities/capacity

Southside, full hydrant facility except Stands D70, D71, D72, D73, D74. Northside, bowser refuelling.

4

De-icing facilities

Available H24 by arrangement with local companies.

5

Hangar space for visiting aircraft

By arrangement with local companies.

6

Repair facilities for visiting aircraft

Maintenance and repair by arrangement.

7

Remarks

Oxygen and related servicing, by arrangement with local companies.

The following companies provide a handling service for all executive and private aircraft:

Harrods Business Aviation Ltd, Tel: 01279-665312. Fax: 01279-681367. e-mail: stnops@harrodsaviation.com

Universal Aviation (UK) Ltd, Tel: 01279-680349. Fax: 01279-680372. e-mail: uk@universalaviation.aero

Inflite Ltd, Tel: 01279-831000. Fax: 01279-837900. e-mail: operations@inflite.co.uk

Diamond Hangar Ltd, Tel: 01279-680161. e-mail: operations@diamondhangar.com

AVTUR JET A-1, oxygen and related servicing available by arrangement with Handling Agent.

Prior Permission Required (PPR) not less than 4 hours before intended movement. General Aviation operators must notify the following details of each flight in advance through their nominated handling agent who will obtain prior permission (Handling Agent requirement is mandatory).

1 – Aircraft type, registration and operator;
2 – Point of origin;
3 – Date/time of ETA and ETD Stansted;
4 – Nominated Handling Agent.

EGSS AD 2.5  PASSENGER FACILITIES

1

Hotels

Hotels in the vicinity.

2

Restaurants

Buffet and bar.

3

Transportation

Trains, buses, taxis and hire cars. Nearest railway station: Stansted Airport (connected to passenger terminal).

4

Medical facilities

Limited first aid treatment available.

5

Bank and Post Office

Bureau de Change in Terminal. No post Office.

6

Tourist Office

 
7

Remarks

 

EGSS AD 2.6  RESCUE AND FIRE FIGHTING SERVICES

1

AD category for fire fighting services

RFF Category A7

RFF Category 8, 9 and 10 on request.

2

Rescue equipment

In accordance with EASA Regulations.

3

Capability for removal of disabled aircraft

The registered owner or aircraft operator retains complete responsibility for the removal of a disabled aircraft. Airlines and aircraft operators are to have aircraft recovery plans and/or a confirmed contract in place. Aircraft recovery arrangements must be submitted to Airside Operations, Stansted Airport Ltd.

4

Remarks

 

EGSS AD 2.7  SEASONAL AVAILABILITY - CLEARING

1

Type of clearing equipment

Mechanical, Chemical de-icing, Sanding.Gritting.

2

Clearance priorities

Standard. See AD 1.2.2.

3

Remarks

Latest Information from SNOWTAM/STAL AODM Tel: 01279-662378.

EGSS AD 2.8  APRONS, TAXIWAYS AND CHECK LOCATIONS/POSITIONS DATA

1

Apron surface and strength

MAIN TERMINAL STANDS

Surface: Concrete

NORTHSIDE STANDS AND GA

Surface: Asphalt

2

Taxiway width, surface and strength

Taxiway FOXTROT: 2523 M

Surface: Asphalt

PCN 80/R/D/W/T

  

Taxiway FOXTROT ALPHA: 18 M

Surface: Concrete

PCN 78/R/C/W/T

  

Taxiway GOLF: 27 M

Surface: Concrete and asphalt

PCN 67/R/D/W/T

  

Taxiway HOTEL: 23 M

Surface: Concrete

PCN 78/R/C/W/T

  

Taxiway JULIET: 23 M

Surface: Concrete

PCN 78/R/C/W/T

3

Altimeter checkpoint location and elevation

500 Apron 329 FT

4

VOR checkpoints

 
5

INS checkpoints

See Aircraft Parking/Docking Chart.

6

Remarks

Taxiway Foxtrot between intermediate holding point F1 and Taxiway Foxtrot Alpha is 25 m.

EGSS AD 2.9  SURFACE MOVEMENT GUIDANCE AND CONTROL SYSTEM AND MARKINGS

1

Use of aircraft stand ID signs, TWY guide lines and visual

docking/parking guidance system of aircraft stands

Azimuth and stopping guidance is provided as follows: AGNIS/Double stop arrows. Stands C40, D64R, D72L, D72R, D73L, D73R, Z204R, Z204L, Z205R, Z205L, Z213L, Z213R, Z214L, Z214R, 520.

Safedock: A1, A1L, A1R, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8, A9L, A9C, A9R, A10, A11, A11L, A11R, A12L, A12C, A12R, A13L, A13C, A13R, A14L, A14R, A15, B20, B21, B22, B23L, B23R, B24L, B24R, B30, B31, B32L, B32R, B33L, B34L, B34R, C41, C42L, C43L, C43R, C44L, C44R, C50L, C50R, C51L, C51R, C52L, C52R, C53L, C53R, D61R, D62L, D62R, D63L, D63R, D64L, E81L, E81R, E82L, E82R, E83L, E83R, E84L, E84R, E90L, E90R, E91L, E91R, E92L, E92R, E93L, E93R, J25L, J25R, J45R, J65L, J65R, J85L, J85R, Z204, Z205, Z213, Z214.

Marshaller instructions: B23C, B24C, B32C, B33C, B33R, B34C, C40, C42C, C42R, C43C, C44C, C50C, C51C, C52C, D61C, D62C, D63C, D70L, D71L, D71R, D74, E81, E82, E90, E91, E92, E93, J45L, Z204F.

Painted Stop Arrows and centre-line Stands: H03L, H03C, H03R, 501, 503, 504, 505L, 505R, 506, 507, 509.

Stand Number indicator board provided on all stands except E81, E82, E90, E91, E92, E93, 501, 502, 507 and 509.

East and West centre-lines in Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Echo and Zulu Cul-de-Sacs available for H24 and limited to aircraft with a maximum wingspan of 36 M.

Taxi-lanes Link Delta restricted to aircraft with a maximum wingspan of 51.9 M. Azimuth and stopping guidance is provided as follows: AGNIS/Double stop arrows. Stands C40, D64R, D72L, D72R, D73L, D73R, Z204R, Z204L, Z205R, Z205L, Z213L, Z213R, Z214L, Z214R, 520.

Safedock: A1, A1L, A1R, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8, A9L, A9C, A9R, A10, A11, A11L, A11R, A12L, A12C, A12R, A13L, A13C, A13R, A14L, A14R, A15, B20, B21, B22, B23L, B23R, B24L, B24R, B30, B31, B32L, B32R, B33L, B34L, B34R, C41, C42L, C43L, C43R, C44L, C44R, C50L, C50R, C51L, C51R, C52L, C52R, C53L, C53R, D61L, D61R, D62L, D62R, D63L, D63R, D64L, E81L, E81R, E82L, E82R, E83L, E83R, E84L, E84R, E90L, E90R, E91L, E91R, E92L, E92R, E93L, E93R, J25L, J25R, J45R, J65L, J65R, J85L, J85R, Z204, Z205, Z213, Z214.

Marshaller instructions: B23C, B24C, B32C, B33C, B33R, B34C, C40, C42C, C42R, C43C, C44C, C50C, C51C, C52C, D61C, D62C, D63C, D70L, D70R, D71L, D71R, D74, E81, E82, E90, E91, E92, E93, J45L, Z204F.

Painted Stop Arrows and centre-line Stands: H03L, H03C, H03R, 501, 503, 504, 505L, 505R, 506, 507, 509.

Stand Number indicator board provided on all stands except E81, E82, E90, E91, E92, E93, 501, 502, 507 and 509.

East and West centre-lines in Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Echo and Zulu Cul-de-Sacs available for H24 and limited to aircraft with a maximum wingspan of 36 M.

Taxi-lanes Link Delta restricted to aircraft with a maximum wingspan of 51.9 M.

2

Runway and taxiway markings and lighting

Runway marking aid(s):

04/22 : Runway designation, runway threshold, (04/22) runway centre-line and touchdown zone markings and runway edge markings.

  

Taxiway light(s):

Green centre-line lighting with selective route switching is provided on Taxiways Golf, Juliet and Hotel. Blue edge lighting is available on Taxiway Foxtrot, Taxilane Foxtrot Alpha and the Western Apron. Illuminated lead-on/off routes are provided at: Golf, Uniform, Victor, Whiskey, Hotel, Kilo, Lima, Lima Romeo, November Romeo, Papa Romeo, Papa, Quebec Romeo, Quebec, Romeo and Sierra holding points. Green Lead-on/off lighting is suppressed when red hold bars are illuminated. Guard lights at all runway entry points.

3

Stop bars and runway guard lights (if any)

At all CAT I and CAT II/III runway holding points. Hotel and Juliet have stop bars along their length and within all cul-de-sacs. No stop bars on Taxiways Foxtrot and Golf. Stop bars at runway holding points are in operation H24.

4

Other runway protection measures

 
5

Remarks

The main aprons are marked for nose-in parking only. All operators should ensure that their handling agents can supply tractor push-back facilities.

Taxiway Juliet: An Airside Operations marshaller is required for aircraft under their own power with a maximum wingspan greater than 51.9 M when routing behind stands J25L/R, J45L/R, J65L/R and J85L/R.

Western Apron: Is restricted to aircraft with a maximum wingspan of 36 M.

Delta Cul-de-Sac wingspan restriction of 38.10 M.

Painted taxiway intermediate holding points to be used at ATC’s discretion are located on Taxiways Foxtrot and Golf and are designated: F1, FA1 and G4. For marshaller contact, Tel: 01279-662478.

Pilots should not enter an aircraft stand unless Stand Entry Guidance is illuminated or a marshaller has signalled clearance to proceed. In the event of there being no activated SEG displayed upon approach to the stand, flight crews should inform Ground Movement Control (GMC) and contact their handling agent. Aircrew must not attempt to self-park if the SEG is not illuminated or calibrated for their aircraft type.

Safedock Advanced Visual Docking Guidance System

The safedock advanced visual docking guidance system (A-VDGS), provides both pilots with guidance for manoeuvring the aircraft into the gate to the correct centre-line and stop position under all operational conditions.

Alpha Middle line has blue paint markings to assist decision making when entering the Alpha Cul-de-Sac.

Note: In case of malfunction in the docking guidance system stop taxiing and contact Stansted Ground/Tower and request assistance.

3x WDI: 515318.58N 0001405.52E - 515336.99N 0001503.18E (LGTD) - 515235.91N 0001333.68E (LGTD). The main aprons are marked for nose-in parking only. All operators should ensure that their handling agents can supply tractor push-back facilities.

Taxiway Juliet: An Airside Operations marshaller is required for aircraft under their own power with a maximum wingspan greater than 51.9 M when routing behind stands J25L/R, J45L/R, J65L/R and J85L/R.

Western Apron: Is restricted to aircraft with a maximum wingspan of 36 M.

Delta Cul-de-Sac wingspan restriction of 38.10 M.

Painted taxiway intermediate holding points to be used at ATC’s discretion are located on Taxiways Foxtrot and Golf and are designated: F1, FA1, F2, F3, F4 and G4. For marshaller contact, Tel: 01279-662478.

Pilots should not enter an aircraft stand unless Stand Entry Guidance is illuminated or a marshaller has signalled clearance to proceed. In the event of there being no activated SEG displayed upon approach to the stand, flight crews should inform Ground Movement Control (GMC) and contact their handling agent. Aircrew must not attempt to self-park if the SEG is not illuminated or calibrated for their aircraft type.

Safedock Advanced Visual Docking Guidance System

The safedock advanced visual docking guidance system (A-VDGS), provides both pilots with guidance for manoeuvring the aircraft into the gate to the correct centre-line and stop position under all operational conditions.

Alpha Middle line has blue paint markings to assist decision making when entering the Alpha Cul-de-Sac.

Note: In case of malfunction in the docking guidance system stop taxiing and contact Stansted Ground/Tower and request assistance.

3x WDI: 515318.58N 0001405.52E - 515336.99N 0001503.18E (LGTD) - 515235.91N 0001333.68E (LGTD).

EGSS AD 2.10  AERODROME OBSTACLES

In Approach/Take-off areas
Obstacle ID/ DesignationObstacle
Type		Obstacle
Position		Elevation/HeightObstruction
Lighting Type/Colour		Remarks
123456

(EGSS8498) 22/APPROACH 04/TAKE-OFF

TREE

515422.36N 0001600.09E

457 FT

90 FT

No

Trees in 22/Approach 04/Take-off relate to highest wooded area.

(EGSS5912) 22/APPROACH 04/TAKE-OFF

TREE

515421.25N 0001600.00E

458 FT

92 FT

No

Trees in 22/Approach 04/Take-off relate to highest wooded area.

(EGSS6045) 22/APPROACH 04/TAKE-OFF

TREE

515420.63N 0001622.98E

452 FT

82 FT

No

Trees in 22/Approach 04/Take-off relate to highest wooded area.

(EGSS8491) 22/APPROACH 04/TAKE-OFF

TREE

515420.41N 0001559.57E

451 FT

87 FT

No

Trees in 22/Approach 04/Take-off relate to highest wooded area.

(EGSS3187) 22/APPROACH 04/TAKE-OFF

LLZ RH 04

515351.32N 0001514.96E

362 FT

15 FT

Yes

Red

 

(EGSS3201) 04/APPROACH 22/TAKE-OFF

FFM

515221.06N 0001257.88E

335 FT

21 FT

No

 
In circling area and at aerodrome
Obstacle ID/ DesignationObstacle
Type		Obstacle
Position		Elevation/HeightObstruction
Lighting Type/Colour		Remarks
123456

(EGSS1620)

ATC OBS LIGHT

515307.09N 0001516.19E

525 FT

214 FT

Yes

Red

 

(EGSS2007)

MAST

515246.93N 0001657.17E

502 FT

171 FT

Yes

Red

 

EGSS AD 2.11  METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION PROVIDED

1

Associated MET Office

MET OFFICE EXETER

2

Hours of service

MET Office outside hour

H24

3

Office responsible for TAF preparation

Periods of validity

MET OFFICE EXETER

30 hours

4

Trend forecast

Interval of issuance

 
5

Briefing/consultation provided

Self briefing/telephone.

6

Flight documentation

Language(s) used

Charts abbreviated plain language text. TAFs/METARs.

English.

7

Charts and other information available for briefing or

consultation

 
8

Supplementary equipment available for providing information

 
9

ATS units provided with information

LONDON STANSTED

10

Additional information (limitation of service, etc.)

Surface wind data (2 minute average) is available for both ends of the runway. Normally, only touchdown surface wind will be passed. Stopend surface wind and instantaneous surface wind available on request for both ends. AUTO METARs are provided over the 24 hour period and verified by a certificated Met Observer.

EGSS AD 2.12  RUNWAY PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS

Designations RWY Number

True bearing

Dimensions of RWY

Surface of RWY/
SWY/
Strength

THR co-ordinates/ THR Geoid undulation

THR elevation/
Highest elevation of TDZ of precision APP RWY		Slope of RWY/ SWY
1234567

04

042.87°

3049 x 46 M

RWY surface: Asphalt, Grooved

PCN 117/F/D/W/T

515237.35N 0001322.30E

149.8 FT

THR 332.3 FT

TDZ 337.5 FT

22

222.89°

3049 x 46 M

RWY surface: Asphalt, Grooved

PCN 117/F/D/W/T

515342.57N 0001500.16E

149.8 FT

THR 347.7 FT

TDZ 347.7 FT

04C

042.87°

 

515257.52N 0001352.56E

149.8 FT

THR 337.3 FT

22C

222.88°

 

515322.40N 0001429.88E

149.8 FT

THR 334.4 FT

SWY DimensionsClearway DimensionsStrip DimensionsRESA Dimensions, Overshoot / UndershootLocation/description of arresting systemOFZRemarks
891011121314

289 x 150 M

3169 x 280 M

240 x 92 M

-

  

RWY 04

Landing threshold is displaced by 298 M.

Paved shoulders extend for 7.6 M either side of the declared runway width, which is denoted by white side stripes.
A stabilised grass outer shoulder is prepared to a width of 7.5m along the full length of the runway beyond the hard shoulders.

267 x 150 M

3169 x 280 M

240 x 92 M

-

  

RWY 22

Paved shoulders extend for 7.6 M either side of the declared runway width, which is denoted by white side stripes.
A stabilised grass outer shoulder is prepared to a width of 7.5 M along the full length of the runway beyond the hard shoulders.

   

RWY 04C

Maintenance Threshold Co-ordinates: To be used during Reduced Distance Operations only. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

   

RWY 22C

Maintenance Threshold Co-ordinates: To be used during Reduced Distance Operations only. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

EGSS AD 2.13  DECLARED DISTANCES

Runway designator

TORA

TODA

ASDA

LDA

Remarks

123456

04

3049 M

3338 M

3049 M

2749 M

 

04

2198 M

2198 M

2198 M

1900 M

To be utilised during Reduced Distance Operations only.
See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

Revised Aerodrome Charts will be published within a SUP as required.

22

3049 M

3316 M

3049 M

3049 M

 

22

1900 M

1900 M

1900 M

1900 M

To be utilised during Reduced Distance Operations only.
See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

Revised Aerodrome Charts will be published within a SUP as required.

04

2823 M

3112 M

2823 M

 

Take-off from intersection of Hold K1.

04

2392 M

2681 M

2392 M

 

Take-off from intersection of Hold L1.

04

1834 M

2123 M

1834 M

 

Take-off from intersection of Hold V1.

22

2685 M

2952 M

2685 M

 

Take-off from intersection of Hold Q1.

22

2334 M

2601 M

2334 M

 

Take-off from intersection of Hold P3.

22

1830 M

2097 M

1830 M

 

Take-off from intersection of Hold U.

04C

1900 M

2189 M

1900 M

1900 M

To be utilised during Reduced Distance Operations only.
See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

Revised Aerodrome Charts will be published within a SUP as required.

22C

2198 M

2465 M

2198 M

2198 M

To be utilised during Reduced Distance Operations only.
See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

Revised Aerodrome Charts will be published within a SUP as required.

EGSS AD 2.14  APPROACH AND RUNWAY LIGHTING

RWYApproach lighting Type/ Length/ IntensityThreshold lighting Colour/ Wing barsVASIS/ MEHT/ PAPI/PAPI Dist from THRTDZ,lightingLengthRunway Centre LinelightingLength/ Spacing/Colour/ IntensityRunway edge lighting Length/ Spacing/Colour/ IntensityRunway end lighting Colour/ Wing barsStopway lightingLength/ColourRemarks
12345678910

04

Coded centre-line with five crossbars.
Supplementary lighting inner 300 M.

780 M

Light intensity high

Green

Light intensity high

With green wingbars

PAPI

/ 3 °

66 FT

390.5 M

900 M

Bi-directional 15 M spacing

Light intensity high

Flush 60 M spacing

Light intensity high

Red

 

TDZ:

TDZ lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

CL:

Centre Line lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

EDGE:

First 300 M from runway end showing red to displaced landing threshold.

22

Coded centre-line with five crossbars.
Supplementary lighting inner 300 M.

900 M

Light intensity high

Green

Light intensity high

With green wingbars

PAPI

/ 3 °

67 FT

465 M

900 M

Bi-directional 15 M spacing

Light intensity high

Flush 60 M spacing

Light intensity high

Red

 

TDZ:

TDZ lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

CL:

Centre Line lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

04C

Truncated Simple Approach with one crossbar.

210 M

Light intensity low

Green

with wing bars (2 units either side of runway)

PAPI

/ 3.5 °

40 FT

212 M

  

Flush 60 M spacing

Light intensity high

Red

 

TDZ:

TDZ lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

CL:

Centre Line lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

22C

Truncated Simple Approach with one crossbar.

210 M

Light intensity low

Green

with wing bars (2 units either side of runway)

PAPI

/ 3.5 °

40 FT

302.5 M

  

Flush 60 M spacing

Light intensity high

Red

 

TDZ:

TDZ lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

CL:

Centre Line lighting not available when Reduced Distance Operations in force. See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i).

EGSS AD 2.15  OTHER LIGHTING, SECONDARY POWER SUPPLY

1

ABN/IBN location, characteristics and hours of operation

 
2

LDI location and lighting

Anemometer location and lighting

LDI: Adjacent to glidepath array, lit.

3

TWY edge and centre line lighting

CL : Green centre-line lighting provided, not on Echo Cul-de-Sac Middle Line or Foxtrot.

EDGE : Blue edge lights on Foxtrot, Foxtrot Alpha and Western apron.

4

Secondary power supply/switch-over time

Yes. 1 second for CAT ll/lll/15 seconds for CAT l.

5

Remarks

Obstacle lighting. Illuminated wind direction indicators at holding point Hotel 3 and holding point Romeo 3.

EGSS AD 2.16  HELICOPTER LANDING AREA

1

Coordinates TLOF or THR of FATO, geoid undulation

 
2

TLOF and/or FATO elevation

 
3

TLOF and FATO area dimensions, surface, strength, marking, lighting

 
4

True BRG of FATO

 
5

Declared distance available

 
6

APP and FATO lighting

 
7

RMK

See AD 2.20, Section 5.

EGSS AD 2.17  AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES AIRSPACE

Designation and
lateral limits		Vertical LimitsAirspace ClassATS unit callsign/
language		Transition AltitudeHours of applicabilityRemarks
1234567

LONDON STANSTED CTR

515416N 0002653E - 514508N 0001309E thence clockwise by the arc of a circle radius 8 NM centred on 515306N 0001406E to 515155N 0000120E - 520104N 0001503E thence clockwise by the arc of a circle radius 8 NM centred on 515306N 0001406E to 515416N 0002653E

Upper limit: 3500 FT ALT

Lower limit: SFC

D

STANSTED RADAR

English

6000 FT

 

A pilot wishing to fly within the CTR/CTA must unless otherwise notified, comply with the following procedures:

1 Call the appropriate ATC Unit on the frequency giving details of the aircraft's position, level and proposed track.
2 Obtain clearance from the appropriate ATC Unit for the flight.
3 Listen out on the appropriate frequency.
4 Obey all instructions from the appropriate ATC Unit.

See EGSL AD 2.22, paragraph b for details of Andrewsfield Local Flying Area.

To operate UAS above 400 FT AGL within this area, UAS operators are required to notify NATS via the NATS Non-Standard Flight (NSF) Portal. UAS operators are required to notify NATS at least 14 days before the date of each activity.

LONDON STANSTED TMZ 1

515416N 0002653E thence anti-clockwise by the arc of a circle radius 8 NM centred on 515306N 0001406E to 520104N 0001503E - 520517N 0002124E thence clockwise by the arc of a circle radius 13 NM centred on 515306N 0001406E to 515828N 0003314E - 515416N 0002653E

Upper limit: 1500 FT ALT

Lower limit: SFC

G

STANSTED RADAR

English

6000 FT

 

See EGSL AD 2.22, paragraph b for details of Andrewsfield Local Flying Area.

Procedures applicable to flights within the Transponder Mandatory Zone are detailed in AD 2.22.

LONDON STANSTED TMZ 2

514508N 0001309E - 514055N 0000652E thence clockwise by the arc of a circle radius 13 NM centred on 515306N 0001406E to 514550N 0000316W - 515146N 0000006W - 515155N 0000120E thence anti-clockwise by the arc of a circle radius 8 NM centred on 515306N 0001406E to 514508N 0001309E

Upper limit: 1500 FT ALT

Lower limit: SFC

G

STANSTED RADAR

English

6000 FT

 

See EGSL AD 2.22, paragraph b for details of Andrewsfield Local Flying Area.

Procedures applicable to flights within the Transponder Mandatory Zone are detailed in AD 2.22.

LONDON STANSTED ATZ

A circle, 2.5 NM radius, centred at 515306N 0001406E on longest notified runway (04/22)

Upper limit: 2000 FT AGL

Lower limit: SFC

D

STANSTED RADAR

English

6000 FT

 

See EGSL AD 2.22, paragraph b for details of Andrewsfield Local Flying Area.

EGSS AD 2.18  AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES COMMUNICATION FACILITIES

Service
Designation

CallsignChannel/Frequency(MHz)SATVOICE
number(s)		Logon Address

Hours of Operation

Remarks

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

APP

STANSTED RADAR

120.625

  

H24

ATZ hours coincident with Approach hours.

  

132.050

As directed by ATC.

  

H24

 

TWR

STANSTED DELIVERY

121.955

Departing aircraft are to make initial call on 121.955 to 'Stansted Delivery' or 121.730 to 'Stansted Ground' as appropriate.

  

As directed by ATC.

Operating hours of Delivery vary according to traffic demand. Exact hours will be broadcast on ATIS. Pilots to ensure they review ATIS before initial contact with ATC. When Delivery is closed pilots should request clearance from Stansted Ground.

 
 

STANSTED GROUND

121.730

DOC 5 NM/GND.

  

0600-2200 (0500-2100).

 
 

STANSTED TOWER

121.500

Emergency frequency O/R.

  

H24

 
  

123.805

DOC 25 NM/10,000 FT.

  

H24

 
  

125.550

  

As directed by ATC.

 

RADAR

STANSTED DIRECTOR

136.200

  

As directed by ATC

 

ATIS

STANSTED INFORMATION

114.550

DOC 100 NM/50,000 FT.
Broadcast on Clacton VOR.

  

H24

 
  

127.180

DOC 60 NM/20,000 FT.

  

H24

 

OTHER

RYANAIR PAD CONTROL

121.555

Remote de-icing frequency

  

As directed by ATC

Operating hours of Pad Control vary according to operational usage of remote de-icing pads. Exact hours will be promulgated via Stansted Airport Airside Operations Ltd.

OTHER

STANSTED FIRE

121.600

Non-ATS frequency.

  

Available when Fire vehicle attending aircraft on the ground in an emergency.

 

EGSS AD 2.19  RADIO NAVIGATION AND LANDING AIDS

Type of Aid
CAT of ILS/MLS
MAG Var/VOR Declination		IdentFrequencyHours of OperationPosition of transmitting antenna coordinatesElevation of DME transmitting antennaRemarks
1234567

ILS/LOC

III

1.43°E (2027)

ISED

110.500 MHz

HO

515351.87N 0001514.12E

 

(RWY 04)

ILS/GP

ISED

329.600 MHz

HO

515247.54N 0001328.75E

 

3° ILS Ref Datum Hgt 53 FT.

ILS/LOC

III

1.42°E (2027)

ISX

110.500 MHz

HO

515221.19N 0001258.09E

 

(RWY 22)

ILS/GP

ISX

329.600 MHz

HO

515338.24N 0001443.95E

 

3° ILS Ref Datum Hgt 49 FT.
Certified for extended range to 15 NM. Not for use below 2200 FT at this range.
Glidepath flags may occur when 8 left of centre-line at or below 2300 FT from 15 NM.

VOR/DME

1.72°E (2027)

1.3°E (2022)

CLN

92Y

114.550 MHz

H24

515054.50N 0010851.32E

100 FT

VOR/DME DOC:
100 NM/50,000 FT (150 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R314-044).

ILS/DME

ISX

42X

110.500 MHz

HO

515312.87N 0001406.08E

352 FT

(RWY 22)
On AD.
DME freq paired with ILS I-SED and I-SX.
Zero range indicated at THR of Runway 04 and 22.

ILS/DME

ISED

42X

110.500 MHz

HO

515312.87N 0001406.08E

352 FT

(RWY 04)
On AD.
DME freq paired with ILS I-SED and I-SX.
Zero range indicated at THR of Runway 04 and 22.

VOR/DME

1.41°E (2027)

1.1°E (2025)

LAM

103X

115.600 MHz

H24

513845.69N 0000906.13E

241 FT

VOR DOC: 30 NM/50,000 FT (40 NM/50,000 FT in Sectors R064-099, R139-174 and R249-289). DME DOC: 40 NM/50,000 FT (110 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R314-134).

VOR/DME

1.58°E (2027)

1.2°E (2023)

DET

120X

117.300 MHz

H24

511814.41N 0003550.19E

645 FT

VOR DOC: 20 NM/50,000 FT (35 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R289-029 and 45 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R249-289).
DME DOC: 60 NM/50,000 FT.

VOR/DME

1.36°E (2027)

1.4°E 1.1°E (20252022)

BKY

109Y

116.250 MHz

H24

515923.17N 0000342.87E

486 FT

VOR DOC: 20 NM/25,000 FT (30 NM/25,000 FT in Sector R069-099).
DME DOC: 120 NM/50,000 FT.

VOR/DME

1.32°E (2027)

1.2°E (2025)

BPK

122X

117.500 MHz

H24

514459.05N 0000624.25W

392 FT

VOR DOC: 20 NM/50,000 FT (40 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R254-074 and 65 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R314-349). DME DOC: 40 NM/50,000 FT (80 NM/50,000 FT in Sector R284-359).

EGSS AD 2.20  LOCAL AERODROME REGULATIONS

1  Aerodrome Regulations

  1. Pilots of non-commercial (General Aviation) flights arriving from abroad are required to report to Customs at the Designated Customs Clearance Office in the Business Aviation Terminal.

  2. Use governed by regulations applicable to Stansted CTR.

  3. All aircraft must be able to communicate by radio.

  4. Pilots must be specially attentive to RTF callsigns used by ATC on the Ground Frequency. Although the RTF channel is shared by aircraft and vehicular traffic, pilots may not hear the transmissions of vehicle drivers, only the responses from ATC.

  5. H24, subject to the prior approval of the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Stansted Airport Ltd.

  6. All flights operating at Stansted require a slot allocation by the airport co-ordinator, (ACL). Operators are advised to review current Stansted Directors Notices on ad-hoc slot allocations and Night restrictions which reflect the airports co-ordinated status.

  7. Requests for ad-hoc slot allocations should be made to ACL during working hours Mon-Fri 0900-1700 (0800-1600) by telephone: 020-8564 0600 or outside of these times to Stansted Airside Operations, by telephone: 01279-662478. Operators are advised that the availability of ad-hoc slots during peak periods is likely to be extremely limited.

  8. Fixed Based Operators are normally available 0600-2200 (0500-2100), and may be available outside of these times with prior arrangement with those handling agents listed at EGSS AD 2.4, Section 7. Customs and Immigration are routinely available 0730-2130 (0630-2030). Control Authority coverage outside of these times may be arranged through the nominated handling agent. Additional charges may apply.

  9. Planned Diversion Procedure - airline and other operators are advised that before selecting Stansted as an alternate, prior arrangements for ground handling, maintenance and aircraft recovery should be in place. Nothing in this procedure shall, however, prevent an aircraft that has a declared emergency from landing.

  10. Fixed Electrical Ground Power (FEGP) must be used whenever available and serviceable. Use of aircraft Auxiliary Power Units (APUs), and diesel Ground Power Units is subject to strict controls as set out in published airport regulations. Between the hours 0600-2330 (0500-2230), APUs should be shut down as soon as practicable following arrival and not restarted until 10 minutes prior to departure, except when the outside air temperature (as promulgated by ATC) is below +5°C or above +20°C. Between 2331-0559 (2231-0459), except when immediately prior to departure, APUs may not be run without notification to Stansted Airside Operations Tel: +44(0)1279-662478.

  11. Aircraft engine testing is permitted subject to the restrictions detailed in the Aerodrome Manual, contact Stansted Airside Operations, Tel: +44(0)1279-662478 for further advice.

2  Ground Movement

  1. General

    1. All requests for clearance, start-up and taxi should be made directly with ATC. Directions issued by ATC should be followed precisely. RTF transmissions must be brief, concise and kept to a minimum.

    2. Within the manoeuvring area pilots will be cleared to and from the stands under general direction from GMC and are reminded of the importance of maintaining a good lookout at all times.

    3. Departing aircraft, on first contact with Stansted ATC, must state aircraft type, stand number, ATIS code letter, QNH received, and then maintain a listening watch at all times.

    4. Clearance is available for departing aircraft approximately 22 minutes before departure on the Delivery frequency (when open-status broadcast on ATIS), otherwise Ground, and must be obtained at least 10 minutes before start up to allow data to be processed - failure to do may incur delays.

    5. Pre-departure clearance by datalink is available at Stansted for suitably equipped aircraft. Pilots are to ensure stand information entered is in line with aircraft parking/docking map and to include apron location e.g A1L, B30, E84R. For further information contact ATC Operations, Tel: +44 (0)1279-669389.

    6. Stansted Airport is equipped with an advanced surface movement radar utilising Mode-S.

      1. Aircraft operators intending to use London Stansted Airport should ensure that Mode-S transponders are able to operate when the aircraft is on the ground.

      2. Flight crew should select XPNDR or the equivalent according to specific installation, AUTO if available, not OFF or STDBY, and the assigned Mode-A code:

        (aa) From the request for push back or taxi, whichever is earlier.

        (bb) After landing, continuously until the aircraft is fully parked on stand.

      3. After parking the Mode-A code 2000 must be set before selecting OFF or STDBY.

      4. Flight crew of aircraft equipped with Mode-S having an aircraft identification feature should also set the aircraft identification. This setting is the aircraft identification specified in Item 7 of the ICAO ATC Flight Plan. The aircraft identification should be entered from the request for pushback or taxi, whichever is earlier, through the FMS or the Transponder Control Panel.

  2. Aprons

    1. Pilots should only request push back (with tug attached) when they are actually ready to do so.

    2. Within the Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Echo and Zulu cul-de-sacs aircraft should take care to use the taxilane as directed by the GMC controller (ie: East, West or middle). Pilots are responsible for ensuring they do not accept a clearance to use a taxilane centre-line which is not approved for their aircraft type.

    3. Caution, Western Apron is uncontrolled.

  3. De-icing Pad Operations

    1. Remote de-icing operations will occur when snow is falling and accumulating and shall be promulgated by Stansted Airport Ltd Airside Operations.

    2. Remote de-icing is only available to operators who have a pre-agreement with Stansted Airport Ltd.

    3. Remote de-icing – Operation

      1. Flight crew shall notify ATC that remote de-icing will be required prior to aircraft pushback via datalink where available.

      2. Flight crew shall simultaneously contact their respective handling agent to request remote de-icing.

      3. Flight crew shall request push and start as per normal. ATC shall direct the aircraft to the de-icing pad.

      4. Upon entering the pad, flight crew shall park the aircraft in line with the respective Painted Stop Arrow and Omni-directional Red Lights.

      5. Once parked the flight crew shall contact the pad controller via the appropriate frequency, and confirm that the parking brake is set, engines are at idle power and the de-icing required.

      6. The pad controller shall confirm the de-icing requirements, and shall authorise the de-icing vehicles to approach the aircraft and begin de-icing operations. The pad controller shall park their vehicle in front of the aircraft, in line-of-sight of the flight crew to manage de-icing operations.

      7. On completion of de-icing operations, the pad controller shall confirm that all de-icing operations have been completed, that vehicles have vacated the manoeuvring area, advise the anti-icing code, the litreage used and areas treated. Once this has been acknowledged by the flight crew the pad controller shall vacate the manoeuvring area. Flight crew shall contact ATC for further taxi.

    4. Remote de-icing – Emergency Procedures

      1. Should an aircraft emergency develop during de-icing pad operations, flight crews are to select all nose landing lighting and contact ATC. Upon seeing the illuminated lights, all de-icing vehicles shall vacate manoeuvring area.

  4. It is the Commander’s responsibility not to accept an ATC clearance into an area not approved for the type of aircraft.

  5. Pilots are reminded that RTF contact must be maintained with ATC whilst engaged in compass swings on the Compass Base or engine runs in the Ground Run Pen.

  6. Runway 04 during CAT II/III operations, aircraft on Golf taxiway with wingspan greater than 36 M may be required to cross the runway at Victor for departure.

  7. Aircraft are not to stop on any runway exit awaiting instructions from Ground Movement Control. If a landing aircraft cannot contact GMC due to RTF congestion the pilot should fully vacate the runway and taxi into the first available taxiway block. The pilot should then hold position until contact with GMC can be established.

  8. Taxiway Hotel, Link D, has a maximum wingspan of 51.9 M.

  9. Taxiway Hotel between abeam Link Delta and Link Echo, including Link Echo has a maximum wingspan of 36 M.

  10. Airport-Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM) - Definitions of Commonly Used A-CDM Terms:

    1. Calculated Take-Off Time (CTOT);

    2. Target Off-Blocks Time (TOBT);

    3. Target Start Approval Time (TSAT);

    4. Target Take-Off Time (TTOT);

    5. Estimated Off-Block Time (Flight Plan EOBT);

    6. Minimum Departure Interval (MDI);

    7. Advanced Visual Docking Guidance System, Ramp Information Display Screen (AVDGS RIDS).

    TOBT/TSAT

    1. Pilots must be aware of the TOBT and TSAT and comply with it. It is visible on AVDGS RIDS where provided, in the Airport Community App and from the Ground Handling Agent.

    2. If TOBT or TSAT can no longer be complied with then TOBT must be updated by the Aircraft Operator via the dispatcher/Ground Handling Agent Ops.

    3. Pilots must report that the flight is READY to depart at TOBT (tolerance window of -5 to +5 minutes). Failure to do so may see TOBT & TSAT deleted.

    4. Reporting READY when not ready will see the READY status rescinded and TOBT & TSAT may get automatically deleted.

    5. Pilots planning to be READY more than 5 minutes before TOBT must update the TOBT to an earlier time first (up to 10 minutes before EOBT or SCHEDULED time).

    6. If at TOBT + 6 minutes ATC have not received a valid READY or start up request the aircraft may lose its position in the departure sequence and a new TOBT may be required.

    7. ATC cannot update TOBT or TSAT values.

    8. A TSAT can never be improved to earlier than the TOBT.

    EOBT Compliance

    1. It is essential that the Flight Plan EOBT and TOBT are kept aligned. A-CDM alarm CDM08 is triggered to the handling agent if they are more than 10 minutes difference. Failure to align may see unachievable CTOTs for which a further delay may occur if the values need to be updated late. An out-of-date EOBT may also receive a Flight Plan suspension from Eurocontrol if there is a taxi delay.

    2. ATC cannot easily update (delay) a Flight plan EOBT - it is the airline's responsibility.

    3. A request can be made to the airport for an airline operator's TOBTs to automatically trigger EOBT updates with Eurocontrol.

    Start Request – Stansted ATC (Delivery, Ground or Tower as appropriate)

    1. If already within the TSAT window when calling READY, ATC will then approve start. In the case of a TSAT delay beyond TOBT, ATC will advise of the TSAT. A TSAT can commonly be later than TOBT due to a CTOT but can also be delayed due to runway capacity or MDI restrictions.

    2. Pilots are to monitor the ATC frequency from this point and must continue to be READY as the TSAT can potentially improve to as early as the TOBT.

    3. Start approval will be issued based on TSAT compliance and the prevailing traffic situation.

    4. Pilots will be informed of an ATC delay to TSAT of more than 5 minutes. In such cases, the TOBT must not be updated further once READY has been acknowledged by ATC.

    5. If a new TOBT is entered the flight will be re-sequenced (new TSAT issued automatically).

    6. The aircraft will not be allowed to start until a valid TOBT has been entered and revised TSAT assigned, with the window of -5 to +5 minutes applicable to both.

    Remote Holding Request

    1. Stansted Airport has remote holding areas available. If an eligible Aircraft Operator is aware of a significant CTOT delay (20 mins+) and wishes to take the delay off stand rather than on the stand, then they should contact ATC for approval and advise their Ground Handling Agent so that the pushback tug remains available.

    2. In this instance, once approved by ATC and recorded as a Remote Hold request which will be indicated on the AVDGS RIDS screen if it’s active, the pushback will be allowed at TOBT and the TSAT will be adjusted to account for expected departure from the remote hold location.

    3. Airlines and ATC must remain open to an airport or Handling Agent request to seek pushback at TOBT for a delayed flight should there be operational demand for the stand or turnaround resources, though it remains at the discretion of ATC.

    Aircraft De-icing Requirements

    1. Stansted airport publishes an aircraft de-icing protocol as detailed within the Aerodrome manual. All Aircraft operators should ensure that they have read and understood this document. A copy can be downloaded from www.stanstedairport.com/airfield-operations/aerodrome-manual/.

    2. To request de-icing, pilots should follow their company’s standard procedure which must include liaison with their ground handler who will additionally enter the requirement for de-cing into A-CDM. It is important to note that pre-boarding de-icing is not relevant to A-CDM and so does not need to be captured. Post-boarding aircraft de-icing time is not included in the TOBT calculation. i.e. this de-icing takes place after TOBT.

    3. If the aircraft is to be de-iced remotely, details for this are held within the London Stansted Airport Winter Operations Plan. A copy can be obtained from your Ground Handling Agent.

    4. Where de-icing is indicated, A-CDM expects that at TOBT when doors are closed, staff are ready to commence de-icing on stand. Pilots must update their Handling Agent if there is a delay to this as the issued TSAT is relative to the expected start and end of de-icing time. A call must also be made to the Ground Handler to update if the de-icing is taking longer or less time than expected as the start-up at TSAT +/- 5 minutes compliance is still required.

    5. Once de-icing on the stand is complete, and assuming TSAT compliance, pilots should call Stansted ATC stating, 'de-icing complete, ready to push and start'.

    6. Pilots who have been allocated a remote de-icing area should contact Stansted ATC at TOBT, stating 'ready to push and start for remote de-icing'. The TSAT becomes the expected time to exit the remote de-icing location.

    7. There is a process for Handling Agents to follow to re-set the TOBT if de-icing has been completed and TSAT was not complied with i.e. TOBT and TSAT were subsequently deleted at TSAT+6. This should be avoided by updating the anticipated de-icing start and end times through the Handling Agent.

3  CAT II/III Operations

  1. Runways 04 and 22, subject to serviceability of the required facilities, are suitable for Category ll/lll operations by operators whose minima have been accepted by the Civil Aviation Authority.

  2. During Category ll/lll operations, special ATC procedures (ATC Low Visibility Procedures) will be applied. Pilots will be informed when these procedures are in operation by ATIS broadcast or by RTF.

  3. Departing aircraft: ATC will require departing aircraft to use the following Category ll/lll holding points:
    Runway 04 – Golf 3, Whisky 3, Hotel 3, Kilo 3 or Lima 3;
    Runway 22 – Quebec 3, Romeo 3 or Sierra 3.
    Occasionally, it may be necessary for other departure points to be used at the discretion of ATC.

  4. Arriving aircraft: All appropriate runway exits are illuminated, and pilots should select the first convenient exit. Runway vacation will be assessed as being when the aircraft has passed the last of the alternate yellow and green centre-line lights. These lights denote the extent of the ILS Localizer sensitive area. Surface Movement Radar (SMR) is available to monitor pilot ‘runway vacated’ reports.

  5. When Low Visibility Procedures are in force a much reduced landing rate can be expected due to the requirement for increased spacing between arriving aircraft. In addition to the prevailing weather conditions, such factors as equipment serviceability may also have an impact on actual landing rates. For information and planning purposes, the approximate landing rates that can be expected are:

    IRVR (M)

    Expected Landing Rate

      

    Greater than 1000

    24

    Between 1000 and 600

    20

    Between 550 and 350

    15

    Less than 300

    12 or less

  6. Runways 04 and 22 are suitable for Lower than Standard Category I operations subject to the ILS radiating at CAT III and LVPs being declared in force by ATC, by Operators whose minima have been accepted by the Civil Aviation Authority. Crews wishing to conduct this approach should inform Stansted Radar on first contact.

  7. Runway 04 during CAT II/III operations, aircraft on Golf taxiway with wingspan greater than 36 M may be required to cross the runway at Victor for departure.

4  Warnings

  1. Extensive instrument flying takes place in vicinity of airport.

  2. Trees in 22 Approach/04 Take-off relate to highest in large wooded area.

  3. Due to runway undulation and line of site issues on Runway 04, aircraft may lose two way communication with ATC. Should this occur when on the runway, pilots should consider aligning with Kilo 1 on the runway.

5  Helicopter Operations

  1. All inbound and outbound helicopters must use the runways. Helicopter handling agents are to obtain slot allocation for all flights. Helicopters may not carry out direct approaches to or take-off from apron areas or taxiways. After landing, helicopters will ground taxi or air taxi to an allocated parking area. While helicopters are operating on the manoeuvring area extreme caution must be exercised regarding wingtip clearance and turbulence.

  2. Departures from the runway unless otherwise directed by ATC are required to follow the routes below in accordance with chart in AD 2.EGSS-4-3 Helicopter VFR arrival/departure routes:

    1. North - Audley End Railway Station VRP via M11 Motorway;

    2. East & South - Canfield A120/B1256 INTERCHANGE VRP;

    3. West - Puckeridge A10/A120 INTERCHANGE VRP via Hazelend Wood VRP and the north side of A120 trunk road, avoiding Bishop's Stortford;

    4. BKY - Nuthampsted AD VRP via Hazelend Wood VRP.

  3. Approach to the runway from the west via Hazelend Wood VRP, or the north from Audley End Railway Station VRP shall remain north of Bury Lodge Hotel and remain clear of Burton End.

  4. Helicopters landing from or departing to the west are to avoid overflight of Birchanger, Stansted Mountfitchet and Bishop's Stortford.

  5. Pilots of inbound helicopters should contact the Terminal Control Group Supervisor (North) on 023-8048 1103 before departure to obtain an indication of likely delays and if necessary to obtain an EAT. Pilots of all inbound helicopters should note they may be required to hold outside CAS until they can be integrated into the traffic sequence and that in the event of a high controller workload such holding may have to be carried out without radar service.

6  Use of Runways

  1. Special runway utilisation procedures are detailed at GEN 3.3.3.

  2. When Runway 04 is in use a right hand circuit is in force.

  3. Wake Turbulence – Departures

    1. The following sets of holding points are considered to be the same point for the purposes of departure wake turbulence separation:

      Runway 04 - H1/H3 and G1/G3

      Runway 22 - S1/S3 and R1/R3

    2. On departure, when in receipt of a line up clearance, the pilot must inform ATC before entering the runway, if greater wake turbulence separation will be required behind preceding aircraft than that laid down in UK AIC P 001/2015. Failure to do so may result in additional delay.

  4. Wake Turbulence – Arrivals

    For the purposes of spacing in the approach phase the following aircraft types are classified as Upper Medium for Wake Turbulence separation: B707, B757, DC-8 and IL62. All other ‘Medium’ aircraft types are classified as Lower Medium. Wake turbulence separations are in accordance with the 5 Group Scheme and are detailed in UK AIC P 001/2015.

  5. Minimum Runway Occupancy – Departures

    1. On receipt of line up clearance, pilots should ensure commensurate with safety and standard operating procedures, that they are able to taxi into the correct position at the hold and line up on the runway as soon as the preceding aircraft has commenced either its take off roll or landing run.

    2. Whenever possible cockpit checks should be completed prior to line up and any checks requiring completion whilst on the runway should be kept to the minimum required. Pilots should ensure that they are able to commence the take off roll as soon as clearance is issued

    3. Pilots not able to comply with these requirements should notify ATC as soon as possible once transferred to the Stansted Tower frequency.

    4. Pilots of aircraft with wingspan greater than 36 M should not proceed beyond the Cat III holding points G3 and W3 unless instructed to do so by ATC. This may result in fluctuations in the glidepath signal and, subject to weather conditions, inbound traffic established on the ILS may be asked to make a visual approach or localiser only approach whilst the restricted area is infringed.

    5. Pilots should never cross Holding Point Red Stop bars.

  6. Minimum Runway Occupancy – Arrivals

    Runway 04

    Taxiway PR

    Taxiway QR

    Taxiway Q

    Distance from threshold (M)

    1566

    1844

    2240

    Design exit speed (KT)

    52

    52

    N/A

    Runway 22

    Taxiway NR

    Taxiway LR

    Taxiway L

    Distance from threshold (M)

    1276

    1891

    2336

    Design exit speed (KT)

    52

    52

    N/A

    1. Pilots are reminded that rapid exit from the runway will enable ATC to apply minimum spacing on final approach and will minimise the risk of ‘go-arounds’.

    2. Commensurate with safety, pilots should expedite their landing roll to vacate via the first available RET at the design exit speed.

    3. Where possible, pilots should exit at PR during Runway 04 operations. Tactical extension to the landing roll of any distance is prohibited unless authorised by ATC.

    4. Aircraft expecting to park on the north side of the airfield may be required to vacate via a RET to the south side during high intensity operations. ATC will advise the pilot accordingly on final approach.

    5. Alternative vacating preferences may only be given at the discretion of ATC.

  7. Runway Vacation Guidelines

    1. Due to high intensity Runway Operations at Stansted it is necessary to ensure pilots adhere to the following guidelines:

      Aircraft are not to stop on any runway exit awaiting instructions from Ground Movement Control. If a landing aircraft cannot contact GMC due to RTF congestion the pilot should fully vacate the runway and runway exit, and then hold position until contact with GMC can be established. Pilots should not anticipate a particular taxiway on vacating as there are no standard routeings at Stansted. On Runway 22, pilots should not assume Taxiway Juliet will be available.

    2. Taxiway November is not available as an entry/exit point from the runway for landing or departing fixed wing aircraft.

  8. Runway Crossing Procedure

    1. Aircraft and vehicles which are required to cross active runways will be issued instructions by the Ground Movement Controller, which will include a holding point as a clearance limit, at which the aircraft or vehicle will be required to hold short of the active runway.

    2. When reaching the clearance limit specified in the taxiing instructions, the aircraft or vehicle will be instructed to change frequency to that of the Air Controller of the appropriate runway.

    3. After crossing the runway and having reported ‘Runway Vacated’ with the Air Controller, the aircraft or vehicle will be instructed to contact the GMC frequency for further clearance. In the absence of further clearance it is essential that the aircraft or vehicle HOLD position when clear of the runway.

  9. Reduced Distance Operations

    1. To allow runway maintenance to take place, Runway 04/22 may be operated in a reduced distance configuration. There are two configurations both of which affect the runway declared distances, ground lighting, navigational aids and instrument flight procedures available. There will also be block closures on the taxiway system to safeguard the closed section of runway and facilitate contractor access. At the beginning and prior to the end of each night’s working period the runway will be closed for approximately 15 minutes to enable the lighting changes to be undertaken. Time periods when these procedures are in use will be notified by SUP & NOTAM.

    2. During these periods, reduced Aeronautical Ground Lighting services are provided as outlined in the table in AD 2.14. The lighting configuration will comply with the criteria laid down for non-precision approaches and take-offs where Instrumented Runway Visual Range (IRVR) is in excess of 400 M. DME will radiate throughout the working period. DME will continue to provide distance guidance for all departures and RNP Z and Y Instrument Approach Procedures (IAP) missed approaches. The RNP Z IAPs will provide distance information to the normal thresholds, while the RNP Y IAPs will provide distance information to the maintenance thresholds. DME is only used for the RNP Z and Y IAP missed approaches.

      Revised Aerodrome Charts will be published within a SUP as required.

    3. Threshold Naming and IAPs available

      The maintenance runway thresholds are designated with a ‘C’ suffix to distinguish them from the normal thresholds:

      1. THR 04 (RW04) is the normal threshold for Runway 04 and RNP Z RWY 04 IAP.

      2. THR 04C (RW04C) is the maintenance threshold for Runway 04C and RNP Y RWY 04C IAP.

      3. THR 22 (RW22) is the normal threshold for Runway 22 and RNP Z RWY 22 IAP.

      4. THR 22C (RW22C) is the maintenance threshold for Runway 22C and RNP Y RWY 22C IAP.

        Note: RW04, RW22, RW04C, RW22C are MAPt WPTs in RNP Z and Y IAPs respectively.

    4. Use of Runways 04C & 22C

      1. Runways 04C & 22C have maintenance thresholds with reduced distances available and will only be used by reason of planned pre-notified runway maintenance.

      2. Instrument Approach Procedures RNP Y RWY 04C and RNP Y RWY 22C to the maintenance thresholds RW04C and RW22C will be conducted at 3.5°.

      3. ILS CAT I/II/III operations not available during maintenance threshold/Reduced Distance Operations.

    5. When Runway 04C in use:

      1. A maintenance threshold (RW04C) will be introduced for Runway 04C. Throughout any working period, the section of runway between the THR 22 and the edge of the works area (abeam LR) will remain operational for aircraft.

      2. The following Holding Points and Rapid Exit Taxiways will be closed during the working period:
        Golf 1, Hotel 1 and 3, Kilo 1 and 3, Lima 1 and 3 and Lima Romeo.

      3. Holding point November 1 and 3 will remain available for use. However, in the absence of a painted or lit lead on/off curve, temporary blue edge lights will be positioned to highlight the pavement edge and all aircraft movements via this holding point will be escorted onto and off the runway under the guidance of a Leader vehicle. Taxiway Hotel from Hotel 1 and 3 to, but not including Taxiway Lima, will be closed during the working period to safeguard the works area and provide access for contractors to it.

    6. When Runway 22C in use:

      1. A maintenance threshold (RW22C) will be introduced for Runway 22C. Throughout the working period, the section of runway between the THR 04 and the edge of the works area (abeam PR) will remain operational for aircraft.

      2. The following Holding Points and Rapid Exit Taxiways will be closed during the working period:
        Papa 3, Quebec Romeo, Quebec 1 and 3, Romeo 1 and 3 and Sierra 1 and 3.

    7. During any period when Reduced Distance Operations are in force:

      1. ILS will not be available.

      2. DME will radiate throughout the working period. It will continue to provide guidance for all departures and RNP Z and Y IAP missed approaches.

      3. RNP Y IAPs PAPIs are set to 3.5° and will only serve the maintenance thresholds RW04C/RW22C.

      4. RNP Z IAPs PAPIs are set to 3° and will only serve the normal thresholds RW04/RW22.

      5. Aircraft must be able to turn within the 46 M width of the runway as it may be necessary to back-track. If required to back-track for departures, pilots should commence the turn at the latest abeam the red stop end wing bars. These are coincident with the start of the declared Runway take off distance. This procedure will ensure persons and equipment within the works area are not exposed to excessive jet blast.

      6. Pilots should note that there will be vehicles with rotating/flashing amber obstruction lights inside the works site.

      7. All runway lighting outside the area available for landing/take-off will be extinguished.

    8. Charts and coding table data relating to RNP Z and RNP Y IAPs are contained within AD 2.24:

      8-3 RNP Z RWY 04 Chart
      8-7 RNP Z RWY 22 Chart
      8-4 RNP Y RWY 04C Chart
      8-8 RNP Y RWY 22C Chart
      8-9 RNP Z RWY 04 and RNP Y RWY 04C Coding Tables
      8-10 RNP Z RWY 22 and RNP Y RWY 22C Coding Tables

    9. Notification of Runway in Use
      The configuration of reduced distance in use at any time will be notified by NOTAM.

7  Training

  1. The use of this aerodrome for training is prohibited. The deliberate simulation of engine failure is not permitted whilst on approach to or departure from the aerodrome. It is not permitted to fly an approach to the aerodrome with the intention to execute a missed approach from training purposes.

EGSS AD 2.21  NOISE ABATEMENT PROCEDURES

Notice under Section 78(1) of the Civil Aviation Act 1982

Whereas:

(1) The Civil Aviation (Designation of Aerodromes) Order 1981 (a) provides that Stansted Airport – London is a designated aerodrome for the purpose of Section 78 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (b);

(2) The requirements specified in this notice appear to the Secretary of State to be appropriate for the purpose of limiting, or of mitigating the effect of, noise and vibration connected with the taking off or, as the case may be, landing of aircraft at Stansted Airport – London

Now, therefore, the Secretary of State, in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 78 (1) and (12) of the Civil Aviation Act 1982, by this notice published in the manner prescribed by the Civil Aviation (Notices) Regulations 1978 (c), provides as follows:

  1. This notice may be cited as the Stansted Airport – London (Noise Abatement Requirements) Notice 2022 and shall come into force on 01 April 2022.

  2. The Stansted Airport – London (Noise Abatement Requirements) Notice 2007 (d) is revoked.

  3. It shall be the duty of every person who is the operator of any aircraft which is to take off or land at Stansted Airport – London to secure that, after the aircraft takes off or, as the case may be, before it lands at the aerodrome the following requirements are complied with:

    1. After take-off the aircraft shall be operated in such a way that it is at a height of not less than 1000 FT AAL at 6.5 KM from start of roll as measured along the departure track of that aircraft.

    2. Subject to sub-paragraphs (4) and (5), any aircraft shall, after take-off, be operated in such a way that it will not cause more than 89 dBA Lmax by day 0700-2300 (0600-2200) as measured at any noise monitoring terminal at any of the sites in the table below. Any exceedance of the daytime noise limit will incur a charge as detailed in the Airport Fees and Charges document.

      Site

      OS

      Co-ordinates

      Elevation

      above

      aerodrome

      Latitude

      Longitude

      Site 11: Chickney Hall Villas, Broxted

      TL 5743 2767

      -15 M

      *515531N

      0001718E

      Site 10: Goodacres, Broxted

      TL 5760 2696

      9 M

      *515508N

      0001725E

      Site 8: Anglian Water, Broxted

      TL 5775 2651

      -16 M

      *515453N

      0001732E

      Site 9: Moor End Farm, Broxted

      TL 5822 2600

      -16 M

      *515436N

      0001756E

      Site 3: Howe Green School, Great Hallingbury

      TL 5106 1874

      -21 M

      *515048N

      0001130E

      Site 4: Thames Water, Bishop’s Stortford

      TL 5012 1963

      -36 M

      *515118N

      0001042E

      Site 5: Woolcott Restaurant, Great Hallingbury

      TL 5033 1892

      -26 M

      *515055N

      0001052E

      Site 6: Morley, Woodside Green

      TL 5153 1860

      -26 M

      *515043N

      0001154E

    3. Subject to sub-paragraphs (4) and (5), any aircraft shall, after take-off, be operated in such a way that it will not cause more than 84 dBA Lmax by night between 2300-0700 (2200-0600) as measured at any noise monitoring terminal at any of the sites in sub-paragraph (2). Any exceedance of the nighttime noise limit will incur a charge as detailed in the Airport Fees and Charges document.

    4. The limits specified in sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) shall be adjusted in accordance with the following table in respect of any noise monitoring terminal at any of the sites referred to in the table in sub-paragraph (2) to take account of the location of that terminal and its ground elevation relative to the aerodrome elevation.

      Site

      Adjustment

      dBA

      Site 11: Chickney Hall Villas, Broxted

      minus 1.3

      Site 10: Goodacres, Broxted

      plus 0.2

      Site 8: Anglian Water, Broxted

      minus 0.6

      Site 9: Moor End Farm, Broxted

      minus 0.8

      Site 3: Howe Green School, Great Hallingbury

      minus 1.0

      Site 4: Thames Water, Bishop’s Stortford

      minus 1.4

      Site 5: Woolcott Restaurant, Great Hallingbury

      minus 1.4

      Site 6: Morley, Woodside Green

      minus 1.1

    5. For the purpose of determining an infringement of the limits specified in sub-paragraphs (2) and (3), if the aircraft was required to take-off with a tailwind, an amount of up to 2dB of the noise recorded at the noise monitor should be disregarded. The amount to be disregarded shall be:

      1. 0.4 dB for a tailwind of up to 1 KT

      2. 0.8 dB for a tailwind exceeding 1 KT but not exceeding 2 KT

      3. 1.2 dB for a tailwind exceeding 2 KT but not exceeding 3 KT

      4. 1.6 dB for a tailwind exceeding 3 KT but not exceeding 4 KT

      5. 2.0 dB for a tailwind exceeding 4 KT.

      For this purpose, tailwind is to be calculated from the wind data measured in the on-airfield anemometers and wind vanes according to the formula:

      (windspeed x cosine (runway heading minus wind direction)) x – 1.

    6. Where the aircraft is a jet aircraft, after passing the point referred to in sub-paragraph (1), it shall:

      1. Between 0600-2330 (0500-2230) maintain a gradient of climb of not less than 4% to an altitude of not less than 4000 FT, unless it has been cleared via Barkway, in which case it shall maintain a gradient of climb of not less than 4% to an altitude of not less than 3000 FT.

      2. Between 2330-0600 (2230-0500) maintain a gradient of climb of not less than 4% to an altitude of not less than 4000 FT.

      The aircraft shall be operated in such a way that progressively reducing noise levels at points on the ground under the flight path beyond that point are achieved.

    7. This paragraph applies to aircraft other than any propeller driven aircraft whose MTWA does not exceed 5700 KG:

      1. With the exception of those aircraft mentioned in sub-paragraph (b), any aircraft which takes off from any runway specified in the first column of the following table, the aircraft shall follow the Noise Preferential Routeing Procedure specified in the third column of the table which relates to the ATC clearance previously given to the aircraft and specified in the second column of the table, whether flying in IMC or VMC. Aircraft persistently flying outside of the Noise Preferential Route maybe subject to a charge as detailed in the Airport Fees and Charges document.

      2. Where any aircraft has taken off on a VFR flight plan, it shall follow the applicable Noise Preferential Routeing Procedure before turning onto the intended track.

      Take-off Runway

      ATC Clearance

      Procedure

      04

      Via Barkway

      Straight ahead to I SED DME 2 (BKY VOR RDL 116) then turn left onto BKY VOR RDL 099 by BKY DME 7 to BKY VOR.

      Via Clacton

      Straight ahead to I SED DME 1 (BKY VOR RDL 122) then turn right onto BKY VOR RDL 114 to intercept CLN VOR RDL 265 to CLN VOR.

      Via Detling

      Straight ahead to I SED DME 0.8 (BKY VOR RDL 123) then turn right onto LAM VOR RDL 024 to LAM DME 9.

      Take-off Runway

      ATC Clearance

      Procedure

      22

      Via Barkway

      Straight ahead to I SX DME 3.1 (BKY VOR RDL 156) then turn right onto BKY VOR RDL 169 by BKY DME 8.

      Via Clacton

      Straight ahead to I SX DME 1.2 (BKY VOR RDL 144) then turn left to intercept CLN VOR RDL 265 by CLN DME 33 (XIGAR) to CLN VOR.

      Note: (Aircraft operating at speeds below 195 KT should turn no further east than 140° MAG to intercept CLN VOR R265).

      Via Detling

      Straight ahead to I SX DME 1.2 (BKY VOR RDL 144) then turn left onto DET VOR RDL 333 (BKY VOR RDL 153) to DET VOR.

    8. RNP1 SIDs are available only to aircraft which are GNSS equipped and approved in accordance with the requirements of JAA TGL-10 or equivalent and where the operator has been approved by their State of Registry for RNP1 operations. If the above criteria is met, an aircraft commander may request to depart on the CLN2E SID when on Runway 22, instead of the CLN9R, and may request the DET2D SID when on Runway 04, instead of the DET2S.

    9. Where the aircraft is departing the aerodrome it shall, commensurate with its ATC clearance, minimise noise disturbance by the use of continuous climb where practicable.

    10. Aircraft shall maintain as high an altitude as practicable, shall avoid flying over Bishop’s Stortford and shall avoid flying over Sawbridgeworth and Stansted Mountfitchet at an altitude of less than 2500 FT and shall avoid flying over St Elizabeth’s Home (*514949N 0000523E) at an altitude of less than 4000 FT (Stansted QNH).

    11. Where the aircraft is approaching the aerodrome to land on Runway 22 it shall, commensurate with its ATC clearance, minimise noise disturbance by the use of continuous descent and low power, low drag operating procedures (referred to in Detailed Procedures for descent clearance in AD 2.22). Where the use of these procedures is not practicable, the aircraft shall maintain as high an altitude as possible. In addition, when descending on initial approach, including the closing heading, and on intermediate and final approach, thrust reductions should be achieved where possible by maintaining a ‘clean’ aircraft configuration and by landing with reduced flap, provided that in all the circumstances of the flight this is consistent with safe operation of the aircraft.

    12. All aircraft approaching Runway 22 or Runway 04 shall:

      1. If using the ILS in IMC or VMC not descend below 2000 FT (Stansted QNH) before intercepting the glidepath nor thereafter fly below the glidepath;

      2. If flying without assistance from the ILS shall not join the final approach to either runway at a height of less than 1500 FT AAL (unless they are propeller-driven aircraft whose MTWA does not exceed 5700 KG when the minimum height shall be 1000 FT AAL) and thereafter shall follow a descent path which will not result in its being at any time lower than the height of the approach path normally indicated by the PAPI.

    13. All aircraft which are to land at Stansted Airport – London between 2330-0600 (2230-0500) shall not descend below 3000 FT (Stansted QNH) until:

      1. In the case of aircraft other than a relevant propeller driven aircraft, it is established on final approach and is less than 10 NM from touchdown.

      2. If a relevant propeller driven aircraft, it is established on final approach and thereafter must fly below the approach path indicated by the PAPI.

    14. Where the aircraft is flying on visual circuits of the aerodrome for missed approach purposes, it shall:

      1. Not descend below 2000 FT (Stansted QNH) on the downwind leg;

      2. Avoid flying over Great Dunmow or Takeley;

      3. As far as possible commence its final approach to the aerodrome after visual circuit at a distance of 3 NM from the landing threshold and at a height of 1000 FT AAL so as to avoid flying over Thaxted if making its final approach to Runway 22, and to avoid flying over Sawbridgeworth if making its final approach to Runway 04.

    15. Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-paragraphs (1)-(14), the aircraft shall at all times be operated in a manner which is calculated to cause the least disturbance practicable in areas surrounding the aerodrome.

    16. The requirements set out in sub-paragraphs (1)-(15) may at any time be departed from to the extent necessary for avoiding immediate danger or for complying with the instructions of an Air Traffic Control unit.

  4. In this notice, except where the context otherwise requires:

‘local time' means, during any period of summer time, the time fixed by or under the Summer Time Act 1972 (e), and outside that period, Universal Co-ordinated Time;

‘dBA’ means a decibel unit of sound level measured on the A-weighted scale, which incorporates a frequency dependent weighting approximating the characteristics of human hearing;

Lmax’ means the highest instantaneous sound level recorded (with the noise monitoring terminal set at the slow meter setting);

’relevant propeller driven aircraft’ means a propeller driven aircraft whose MTWA does not exceed 25000 KG and which has ATC clearance to make a visual approach for the purpose of landing at Stansted Airport – London;

other abbreviations used are defined in GEN 2.2 of the United Kingdom Aeronautical Information Publication (Air Pilot).

 

Ian Elston

 

Deputy Director

 

Airspace, Noise & Resilience Division

01 February 2022

Department for Transport

  1. S.I. 1981/651.

  2. 1982 c.16.

  3. S.I. 1978/1303.

  4. The Stansted Airport - London (Noise Abatement Requirements) Notice 2007 signed by M Capstick on 16 October 2007.

  5. 1972 c.6 as amended by S.I 2002/262.

    Notes

    (These notes are not part of the notice)

1. The Noise Preferential Routeing Procedures specified in the notice are compatible with normal ATC requirements. The use of the routeings specified is supplementary to noise abatement take-off techniques as used by piston-engined, turbo-prop, turbo-jet and turbofan aircraft.

2. The attention of operators is drawn to the provisions of Section 78 (2) of the Civil Aviation Act 1982, under which if it appears to the Secretary of State that any of the requirements in this notice have not been complied with as respects any aircraft, he may direct the manager of the aerodrome to withhold facilities for using the aerodrome from the operator of the aircraft. However, the Secretary of State accepts that occasional and exceptional breaches of the noise limits, or of the height requirement, would not be expected to lead to sanctions under Section 78 (2) of that Act. Such breaches would, however, run the risk of financial penalties under Section 78 (A).

3. Noise from ground running of aircraft engines is controlled in accordance with instructions issued by Stansted Airport Limited.

4. To minimise disturbance in areas adjacent to the aerodrome, commanders of aircraft are requested to avoid the use of reverse thrust after landing, consistent with the safe operation of the aircraft, between 2330-0600 (2230-0500).

5. Full details concerning the maximum number of occasions and the types of aircraft which are permitted to take off or land at night during specified periods at this aerodrome are promulgated by Supplement to the United Kingdom Aeronautical Information Publication.

6. For monitoring purposes, a descent will be deemed to have been continuous provided that no segment of level flight longer than 2.5 NM occurs below 6000 FT QNH and ‘level flight’ is interpreted as any segment of flight having a height change of not more than 50 FT over a track distance of 2 NM or more, as recorded in the airport Noise and track-keeping system.

7. For monitoring purposes, a departure will be deemed to have complied with the Noise Preferential Routeing (NPR) if, in the portion of flight below the appropriate vectoring altitude (see notes 8 and 9 below), it is properly recorded by the airport's noise and track-keeping (NTK) system as having flown wholly within the Lateral Swathe (LS). The LS is defined from the centre-line of the relevant route coded in the NTK system, based upon a map accredited for this purpose by the Department for Transport, by the closer to the route centre-line depicted on the map of (a) a pair of lines either side, each diverging at an angle of 10° from a point on the runway centre-line 2000 M from start-of-roll; and (b) a pair of parallel lines representing a distance of 1.5 KM either side of the route centre-line. For avoidance of doubt, the depicted route and LS may include curved sections representing turns.

8. Aircraft which have attained an altitude of 4000 FT (Stansted QNH) may be directed by air traffic controllers onto a different heading and commanders complying with any such direction will not by reason of so complying be deemed to have departed from the Noise Preferential Routeing. This applies:

  1. Between 2330-0600 (2230-0500) to all take-offs, and;

  2. Between 0600-2330 (0500-2230) to all take-offs other than those cleared via Barkway.

9. Between 0600-2330 (0500-2230) aircraft which have taken off cleared via Barkway and which have attained an altitude of 3000 FT (Stansted QNH) may be directed by air traffic controllers onto a different heading and commanders complying with any such direction will not by reason of so complying be deemed to have departed from the Noise Preferential Routeing.

EGSS AD 2.22  FLIGHT PROCEDURES

1  Procedures for Inbound Aircraft under IFR

  1. Inbound via the ATS Route Network

    1. The Standard Arrival Routes (STAR) for aircraft inbound to London Stansted are shown at AD 2-EGSS-7-STAR Charts.

    2. The Terminal Holding facilities at LOREL and at ABBOT are shared with arrivals to both London Stansted and Cambridge airports. Additionally, the ABBOT holding facility will continue to be used for RNAV-5 arrivals into London Luton.

    3. Aircraft may be vectored off the routes for separation purposes. When separation has been achieved ATC will give an approximate track to resume the STAR via the appropriate VOR radial or fix.

  2. Inbound other than via the ATS Route Network

    1. Aircraft wishing to enter the London Stansted CTR/CTA direct from the London Flight Information Region are required to obtain ATC clearance at least 10 minutes before reaching the CTR or CTA boundary, when they will be advised of the route to be followed consistent with the current traffic situation.

    2. Except where required by the Instrument Approach Procedures, inbound aircraft to London Stansted, whether in VMC or IMC, should comply with the Noise Abatement procedures for arriving aircraft as detailed in Section AD 2.21.

  3. Approach Procedures - with Radar Control

    1. When inbound traffic is being sequenced by Radar, the Approach procedure will be flown under directions from the appropriate Radar Controller, and will consist of that part of the approach between the holding pattern and the Final Approach Track.

    2. Once the aircraft is under Approach Radar Control changes of heading or Flight Level/Altitude will be made only on instructions from the Radar Controller, except in the case of radio communications failure in the aircraft or at the Radar Unit

    3. Headings and Flight Levels/Altitudes to leave the holding facility will be passed by ATC. When holding is not necessary, radar vectors may be given prior to the aircraft reaching the holding pattern and descent clearance will include an estimate of track distance to touchdown.

    4. Procedures specific to Runway 22 arrivals via LOREL and ABBOT STARs.
      Further distance information will be given between initial descent clearance and intercept heading to the ILS. On receipt of descent clearance the pilot will descend at the rate he judges will be best suited to the achievement of continuous descent, the object being to join the glidepath at the appropriate height for the distance without recourse to level flight.

    5. Pilots should typically expect the following speed restrictions to be enforced: 220 KT from the holding facility during the intermediate approach phase; thereafter, and until established on final approach, the highest possible speed within the band 160-180 KT; when established on the ILS and thereafter until 4DME, 165 KT with a tolerance of +/- 5 KT.

      These speeds are applied for ATC separation and runway capacity purposes and are mandatory. In the event of a new (non-speed related) ATC clearance being issued (eg an instruction to descend on ILS), pilots are not absolved from a requirement to maintain a previously allocated speed. All speed restrictions are to be flown as accurately as possible. Aircraft unable to conform to these speeds should inform ATC and state what speeds will be used. In the interests of accurate spacing, pilots are requested to comply with speed adjustments as promptly as feasible within their own operational constraints, advising ATC if circumstances necessitate a change of speed for aircraft performance reasons.

    6. The spacing provided between aircraft will be designed to achieve the maximum runway utilisation within the parameters of safe separation minima (including vortex effect) and runway occupancy. It is important to the validity of the separation provided that runway occupancy time is kept to a minimum consistent with the prevailing conditions.

    7. In the event of radar failure, new instructions will be issued to each aircraft under radar control and the procedures as defined for Approach without radar control, will be put into effect.

    8. In the event of radio communications failure at the Radar Unit, pilots should contact Aerodrome Control for further instructions.

  4. Approach Procedures without Radar Control

    When inbound traffic is not being sequenced by Radar, aircraft will be cleared from the Holding Fix to carry out the appropriate Instrument Approach procedure detailed at AD 2-EGSS-7-Initial Approach Procedures Charts.

  5. RNP Z IAPs and RNP Y IAPs during Reduced Distance Operations:
    See AD 2.20 Section 6 (i) for further information.

2  Procedures for Outbound Aircraft

  1. Standard Instrument Departure Procedures are detailed at AD 2-EGSS-6-1 to AD 2-EGSS-6-9.

  2. Departure Speed Restriction: In order to optimise the departure flow and assist in the separation between successive departing aircraft a speed limit of 250 KT IAS below FL 100 is applicable until removed by ATC. ATC may remove the speed restriction by using the phrase ‘No ATC Speed Restriction’. Pilots are reminded that this phrase does not relieve the pilot of the responsibility to adhere to the ground track of the Noise Preferential Route, which may require a speed/power limitation.

  3. If for any reason pilots are unable to comply with the 250 KT IAS speed restriction the pilot should immediately advise ATC and state the minimum speed acceptable. If a pilot anticipates before departure that they will be unable to comply with the speed restriction, they should inform ATC when requesting start-up clearance, stating the minimum speed acceptable. In this case the pilot will be informed before take-off of any higher speed limitation.

  4. Flights via the ATS Route Network to Luton are to file a BKY SID as far as BKY and route BKY-BUSTA-EGGW.

  5. The RNP1 SIDs, CLN1E and DET1D, can only be requested by an operator that has been approved by their State of Registry for RNP1 operations available only to aircraft which are GNSS equipped and approved in accordance with the requirements of JAA TGL-10 or equivalent.

3  Radio Communications Failure Procedures

In the event of complete radio communication failure in an aircraft, the pilot is to adopt the appropriate procedures notified in ENR 1.1.3, with the exceptions described below:

  1. Aircraft inbound to London Stansted or Cambridge via LOREL † or ABBOT ‡

    1. When complete communication failure occurs in the aircraft before ETA, or before EAT, when this has been received and acknowledged the aircraft will:

      1. continue to the appropriate holding point LOREL † or ABBOT ‡ as detailed at AD 2-EGSS-7-1 to 7-15;

      2. hold until the last acknowledged ETA plus 10 minutes, or EAT when this has been given;

      3. then commence descent for landing in accordance with the approach procedure for the runway in use and effect a landing within 30 minutes (or later if able to continue visually).

    2. If complete radio failure occurs after an aircraft has reported to ATC on reaching the holding point the aircraft will:

      1. Maintain the last assigned level at LOREL † or ABBOT ‡ until:

        aa ATA over the holding point plus 10 minutes or 10 minutes after the last acknowledged communication with ATC whichever is the later; or

        bb EAT when this has been received and acknowledged.

      2. then commence descent for landing in accordance with the approach procedure for the runway in use and effect a landing within 30 minutes (or later if able to continue visually).

    3. Radio failure during a Radar Directed Initial Approach to London Stansted

      If complete radio failure occurs after clearance to descend to an altitude has been given during a radar directed initial approach, the following procedure should be adopted:

      1. continue visually or by means of an appropriate final approach aid;

      2. if not possible, maintain 3000 FT ALT or last assigned altitude if higher and proceed to BKY VOR, then;

      3. hold at BKY VOR for 5 minutes (Holding axis 270° MAG inbound track (BKY RDL 090°), turning left at the facility, Max IAS 220 KT), then;

      4. descend in the holding pattern if necessary to 3000 FT ALT, then;

      5. leave BKY VOR on RDL 197 (Runway 04) or RDL 070 (Runway 22) to join the Initial Approach Procedure detailed at AD 2-EGSS-7-Initial Approach Procedures Charts;

      6. in the event of a missed approach, follow the Missed Approach Procedure to BKY VOR and adopt the basic radio failure procedure detailed at ENR 1.1.3

    4. The route and level to be used when leaving Controlled Airspace in accordance with the procedures given at ENR 1.1.3 is as follows:

    Position at time of decision

    Route

    ABBOT

    LOREL

    BKY VOR

    Turn right onto track 360°M at last assigned level.

    Turn left onto BPK VOR RDL 030° at last assigned level.

    BKY VOR RDL 360° at 3000 FT ALT.

  2. Outbound Aircraft

    1. All outbound traffic except those operating on NUGBO 1R/1S: Comply with the route and altitude limitations detailed in the allocated Standard Instrument Departure Procedures listed at AD 2-EGSS-6 or ATC clearance and commence climb to flight planned level after the last position at which an altitude is specified.

    2. Outbound traffic operating on NUGBO 1R/1S: If a clearance to climb or re-routing instructions have not been given, comply with the route and altitude limitations detailed in the allocated Standard Instrument Departure Procedures listed at AD 2-EGSS-6-1/6-2, then route via M183 to SILVA; at SILVA, commence climb to flight planned level.

4  Special VFR Flight

  1. Clearance may be requested for Special VFR flight within the London Stansted CTR and will be given whenever the traffic situation permits. Special VFR flights are subject to the general conditions laid down at ENR 1.4

    Note: Pilots holding a Private Pilot’s Licence (Aeroplanes) are reminded of the flight visibility requirements for Special VFR flight laid down in Schedule 7 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 and the related notification at ENR 1-4, para 2.4.

  2. Aircraft may be subject to radar vectoring whilst within the CTR if, due to the traffic situation, ATC considers it necessary. Pilots are reminded that they must at all times when operating on a Special VFR Clearance, remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface and in flight conditions which will enable them to determine their flight path and remain clear of obstacles. Pilots must inform the radar controller if compliance with these requirements entails a change of heading or level.

  3. Pilots are reminded that a Special VFR clearance applies only to flight within the CTR and does not extend to flight within the surrounding airspace of the London TMA or London Luton airspace.

  4. In order to reduce conflict with IFR flights, Special VFR arriving and departing flights will normally be cleared not above 1500 FT ALT via the following routes.

    1. Audley End Railway Station VRP via M11 Motorway;

    2. Canfield A120/B1256 INTERCHANGE VRP;

    3. Puckeridge A10/A120 INTERCHANGE VRP via north side of A120 trunk road, avoiding Bishop’s Stortford;

    4. Nuthampsted AD VRP.

5  VFR Flights

  1. VFR flights inbound to London Stansted or transitting the Stansted CTR/CTA should contact Stansted Radar at least five minutes prior to the CTR/CTA boundary and must not enter the CTR/CTA unless clearance has been given.

  2. VFR flights will be given routeing instructions and/or altitude restrictions in order to integrate VFR flights with other traffic. Clearance may be subject to delay or re-routeing. Pilots should anticipate clearance with reference to the Stansted VRPs.

  3. In order to reduce conflict with IFR flights, VFR arriving and departing flights will normally be cleared not above 2000 FT ALT via the routes detailed in paragraph 4 d.

  4. Pilots are reminded of the Stansted Transponder Mandatory Zones and of the close proximity of busy minor aerodromes.

6  Visual Reference Points (VRP)

  1. VRPs have been established to facilitate the routes detailed in paragraphs 4d and 5b and to enable pilots of transit flights to plan alternative routes around the CTR/CTA when traffic conditions require.

  2. Details of VRPs are available in the consolidated 'Visual Reference Points List' published on the 'Digital Dataset' page of the NATS AIS website, www.nats.aero/ais.

7  Helicopters

  1. Helicopters inbound to or overflying London Stansted Airport may be required to hold at the following additional VRPs within the aerodrome boundary for integration with arriving and departing flights:

    1. From the north:

      North end of Hangar 12 VRP †.

    2. From the south:

      Diamond Hangar (Hangar 8) VRP.

    3. From/to the west:

      Helicopters arriving/departing via the Puckeridge A10/A120 INTERCHANGE VRP are to route to Hazelend Wood VRP avoiding overflying the built-up areas, of Birchanger, Stansted Mountfitchet and Bishop’s Stortford.

      † See AD 2.20, Section 5 and AD 2-EGSS-4-1.

  2. Helicopters positioning from the VRPs to the runway shall maintain at least 500 FT AGL until aligned with the let down point.

8  Transponder Mandatory Zone Access

  1. Suitably equipped aircraft may access a Stansted TMZ without ATC approval although such traffic is strongly recommended to afford itself of either a UK Flight Information Service or make use of an appropriate Monitoring Code (see ENR 1.6, para 2.2.5) if available.

  2. The pilot of an aircraft that wishes to operate in a Stansted TMZ without serviceable transponder equipment as defined in GEN 1.5 para 5.3 may be granted access to the TMZ subject to specific ATC approval. This approval may be obtained from Farnborough Radar on frequency 132.800 during their hours of operation 0800-2000 (0700-1900) or from Stansted Radar on frequency 120.625, at other times.

9  Fixed Wing, Gliding, Hang-Gliding, Paragliding and Microlight Activity - Stansted CTR/CTA

  1. Microlight and fixed wing activity takes place during daylight hours at Audley End. The Audley End Operating Area is delineated by reference to the eastern and southern boundaries of an easily identified forest area defined as the airspace from the surface to 1500 FT AMSL including that portion of the Stansted CTR contained within the following positions:
    520009N 0001341E (CTR boundary) then clockwise to 515937N 0001351E - 515926N 0001347E - 515920N 0001329E - 515919N 0001225E (CTR boundary).

  2. Intense gliding activity within the Andrewsfield ATZ, a circle, 2 NM radius centred at 515342N 0002657E. Refer to AD 2 EGSL for more details.

  3. Microlight activity takes place during daylight hours at Hunsdon Aerodrome and part of the Stansted CTR up to altitude 1000 FT within the area defined by straight lines joining successively the following points:
    514927N 0000226E - 515001N 0000415E - 514929N 0000537E - 514705N 0000357E - 514706N 0000157E - 514654N 0000123E - 514824N 0000051W - 514905N 0000030W - 514917N 0000127W - 515041N 0000039W - 514927N 0000226E.

10  Frequency Monitoring Code (FMC)

  1. Due to the high number of controlled airspace infringements, pilots operating in the vicinity of, but intending to remain outside Stansted controlled airspace within the area defined by straight lines joining successively the following points and maintaining a listening watch only on Stansted Radar frequency, 120.625 MHz, are expected to select SSR code 7013.

    514111N 0001345W - 514459N 0000624W -
    520311N 0000141W - 521109N 0000102W -
    521104N 0003242E - 520226N 0004040E -
    515246N 0004658E - 513630N 0001545E -
    514111N 0001345W.

  2. Selection of 7013 does not imply the receipt of an ATC service. Aircraft displaying the code are not expected to contact ATC under normal circumstances, remain responsible for their own navigation, separation, terrain clearance and are expected to remain clear of the Stansted controlled airspace at all times.

  3. Whilst squawking 7013, pilots should be aware that Stansted Radar may make blind transmissions in order to ascertain a particular aircraft's intentions/route.

  4. Pilots operating at adjacent aerodromes such as Cambridge, Duxford, Andrewsfield and Stapleford are to select the most appropriate frequency to their location and Rules of the Air.

  5. When a pilot ceases to maintain a listening watch, code 7013 shall be deselected.

EGSS AD 2.23  ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

  1. Mode S Barometric Pressure Setting Data

London Terminal Control has the ability to downlink Mode S Barometric Pressure Setting (BPS) data. Therefore, if the downlinked pressure data is at variance with the BPS expected by Air Traffic Control, pilots can expect additional challenge. When Air Traffic Control pass a reminder of the appropriate BPS, it is anticipated that the aircrew will cross check the altimeter settings and confirm set.

EGSS AD 2.24  CHARTS RELATED TO AN AERODROME

AERODROME CHART - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-2-1

AIRCRAFT PARKING/DOCKING CHART - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-2-2

A380 GROUND MOVEMENT CHART - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-2-3

AIRCRAFT DE-ICING PADS - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-2-4

CONTROL ZONE and CONTROL AREA CHART - ENTRY/EXIT LANES and VRPS - TRANSPONDER MANDATORY ZONES

AD 2.EGSS-4-1

HELICOPTER VFR ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE ROUTES

AD 2.EGSS-4-3

ATC SURVEILLANCE MINIMUM ALTITUDE CHART - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-5-1

STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) RWY 22 UTAVA 1R NUGBO 1R BKY 6R - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-6-1

STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) RWY 04 UTAVA 1S NUGBO 1S BKY 3S - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-6-2

STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) RWY 04/22 CLN 5S 9R - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-6-3

STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) RWY 04/22 DET 2S 2R - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-6-4

RNP1 STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) RWY 22 CLN 2E - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-6-5

RNP1 STANDARD DEPARTURE CHART - INSTRUMENT (SID) RWY 04 DET 2D – ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-6-6

STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE CODING TABLES - RWY 22 CLN 2E

AD 2.EGSS-6-7

STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE CODING TABLES - RWY 04 DET 2D

AD 2.EGSS-6-8

RNAV1 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) TELTU 1L - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-1

RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) LISTO 1L - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-2

RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) BKY 1X BPK 1X - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-3

RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) BANVA 1L ABBOT 1Z - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-4

RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) FINMA 1L SILVA 1L - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-5

RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) AVANT 1L - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-6

RNAV1 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) SIRIC 1L - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-7

RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) LOGAN 2A DET 2A - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-8

RNAV5 (DME/DME or GNSS) STANDARD ARRIVAL CHART - INSTRUMENT (STAR) MEGEL 1A RINIS 1A TOSVA 1A XAMAN 1A - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-7-9

STANDARD INSTRUMENT ARRIVAL CODING TABLES TELTU 1L LISTO 1L BKY 1X BPK 1X

AD 2.EGSS-7-10

STANDARD INSTRUMENT ARRIVAL CODING TABLES BANVA 1L ABBOT 1Z FINMA 1L

AD 2.EGSS-7-11

STANDARD INSTRUMENT ARRIVAL CODING TABLES SILVA 1L AVANT 1L SIRIC 1L

AD 2.EGSS-7-12

STANDARD INSTRUMENT ARRIVAL CODING TABLES LOGAN 2A DET 2A MEGEL 1A RINIS 1A

AD 2.EGSS-7-13

STANDARD INSTRUMENT ARRIVAL CODING TABLES TOSVA 1A XAMAN 1A

AD 2.EGSS-7-14

RNAV HOLD CODING TABLES ABBOT ADLOG BOMBO HON LAPRA LOGAN LOREL

AD 2.EGSS-7-15

RNAV HOLD CODING TABLES UNDUG VATON

AD 2.EGSS-7-16

INITIAL APPROACH PROCEDURES ILS RWY 04 Without Radar Control

AD 2.EGSS-7-17

INITIAL APPROACH PROCEDURES ILS RWY 22 Without Radar Control

AD 2.EGSS-7-18

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART ILS/DME RWY 04 - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-1

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART LOC/DME RWY 04 - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-2

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART RNP Z RWY 04 - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-3

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART RNP Y RWY 04C - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-4

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART ILS/DME RWY 22 - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-5

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART LOC/DME RWY 22 - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-6

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART RNP Z RWY 22 - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-7

INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART RNP Y RWY 22C - ICAO

AD 2.EGSS-8-8

INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE CODING TABLES - RNP Z RWY 04, RNP Y RWY 04C

AD 2.EGSS-8-9

INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE CODING TABLES - RNP Z RWY 22, RNP Y RWY 22C

AD 2.EGSS-8-10

EGSS AD 2.25  VISUAL SEGMENT SURFACE (VSS) PENETRATION

Not applicable